Deut 4:19 is a direct reference to Deut 32:8. Do you disagree?
Please support this notion. As far as I'm aware, the Hebrew Bible presents two classes of beings. Humans beings and divine beings. Can you show a reference to some other class?
No, I was referring primarily to the rhetoric of irrelevance and incomparability, but as I showed, the rhetoric of "no other" is appealed to in Isaiah and Zephaniah.
The "no other" rhetoric is used in Isaiah and Zephaniah, and it actually refers to no other nations besides Babylon, Moab, and Nineveh. I said nothing about no other nation besides Israel.
Fair enough. I apologize.
Don't deserve that designation? I don't find that statement anywhere in the text, inferred or otherwise. Rather, it's just saying they're irrelevant. Unfortunately, however, for that rhetoric, Assyria was more powerful than Israel. So was Babylon. So was Persia. So was Rome. So was Greece. If you claim the author is saying those peoples don't deserve the designation "people," you cut the legs out from your own argument, since they are, ontologically, people.
You see how my view does derive from the text after all?!
Based on what (besides your presupposition that they don't recognize other deities)? They very clearly recognize the sun, moon, and host of heaven as deities. What does Job 38:7 think of the morning stars? They are shouting for joy at the foundation of the earth and they are put parallel to the sons of God. 1 Kgs 22:19 has all the host of heaven standing around Yhwh seated on his throne.
Babylon, Moab, and Nineveh say there is no other besides them. We've been through what this rhetoric means already. We've also been through the hermeneutic circle you're stuck in by prioritizing in your hierarchy of interpretation your putative monotheistic statements over other non-monotheistic statements. Why must Deut 4:29 govern the interpretation of Deut 32:8 instead of the other way around? Because you're imposing your theology upon the Hebrew Bible.
Quite a coincidence, then, that this figurative language happens to be the exact way that all the other nations surrounding Israel called upon their gods to judge. In light of the fact that the stars and host of heaven are repeatedly represented as deities serving Yhwh, and in light of the fact that the Hebrew Bible is replete with divine council imagery associated with the literary conventions of those surrounding nations, I cannot see how one can possibly assert that your figurative reading (that has no support anywhere in the Hebrew Bible) is the best reading.
Every shred of evidence from the text points in that direction. All you can do is hold up a small handful of verses that you think preclude monolatry (even though you argue for it elsewhere) and ignore the fact that they can be rhetorically reconciled with my position with the greatest of ease, and in a manner that is consistent with numerous other Northwest Semitic literary conventions. You also have to ignore the fact that your position has no support in the text, and must draw upon modern dogmas.
Again, I'm not worried about how it squares with my personal convictions. I'm worried about how it squares with what the Israelites believed.