I am referring to the story where the Sadducees came to Jesus and gave him the hypothetical about the woman "with" them who had seven husbands and all of them died, then asked the question as to who she would be married to in the resurrection.
Jesus responds that she would be married to none of them because there is no marrying or giving in marriage in heaven. I will give the text below.
23 Ă?Â¶ The same day came to him the Sadducees, which say that there is no resurrection, and asked him,
24 Saying, Master, Moses said, If a man die, having no children, his brother shall marry his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother.
25 Now there were with us seven brethren: and the first, when he had married a wife, deceased, and, having no issue, left his wife unto his brother:
26 Likewise the second also, and the third, unto the seventh.
27 And last of all the woman died also.
28 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her.
29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.
30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.
31 But as touching the resurrection of the dead, have ye not read that which was spoken unto you by God, saying,
32 I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? God is not the God of the dead, but of the living.
33 And when the multitude heard this, they were astonished at his doctrine.
Critics frequently use this passage to argue that the LDS teaching of marriage in heaven is false.
LDS, on the other hand, are quick to note that Jesus is apparently restricting his teaching in this regard to the people mentioned in the hypothetical (which echoes Sarah's misadventures in Tobit chapter 3); and that as to the Sadducees, this is true; that it is not a blanket pronouncement, but restricted to the example before him.
What I would like to suggest is that this passage indicates that Jesus did teach marriage in heaven and that the Sadducees knew it.
This passage comes in a series of three "traps" that were laid for Jesus by his opponents in the Jewish leadership.
The first trap had to do with asking if it was proper to pay tax to Caesar; the third trap had to do with asking what is the greatest commandment in the law.
It is important to note that neither in the first nor the third trap does Jesus answer the question; at least not in the terms of the question that is proposed. (To the first, he says to pay to Caesar what is Caesar's and to pay unto God what is God's; an interesting extra-biblical agrapha adds, "and pay to me what is mine." To the third, he does not give one commandment that is most important, but adds a second to his answer.)
I think the critical question relating to the passage under consideration is, "What was the trap?"
If we read it at face value, there is no trap, and it is rather a pointless question. In other words, if Jesus did not teach any form of marriage in heaven, why would this question be considered to have the possibility of trapping Jesus in any way?
I believe the trap would be that, if Jesus were teaching marriage in heaven, that under the terms of the hypothetical, he would have to respond that the woman had seven husbands.
This would probably be considered anathema to his audience, and a ripe subject for ridicule.
But once again, the question asked by the Sadducees makes sense only if we presuppose that Jesus was teaching some form of marriage in heaven, and that the Sadducees knew he was teaching it.
All the Best!